Cyber law: quick revision and practice

1. The forty sections

2. Six leading cases

How AIBE asks this

Most Cyber Law questions in AIBE give a description and ask for the section, or give a case and ask for its holding. Some test the change from the old laws to the new (section 65B to section 63 BSA) or a number in the rules (fifty lakh users, six hours, sixty days). Practise matching in both directions: section to content and content to section.

Practice set: 25 questions

1. Section 66A of the IT Act was struck down in:
   (A) Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India
   (B) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
   (C) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
   (D) Sharat Babu Digumarti v. Govt. of NCT of Delhi
   Answer

   (B). Struck down in 2015 as violating Article 19(1)(a).
2. The IT Act does not apply to:
   (A) a cheque
   (B) an e-mail contract for sale of goods
   (C) a will
   (D) an online bank statement
   Answer

   (C). Wills are in the First Schedule (section 1(4)); cheques are expressly carved out of the negotiable instruments exclusion.
3. Authentication of an electronic record by digital signature uses:
   (A) symmetric crypto system and hash function
   (B) asymmetric crypto system and hash function
   (C) biometric verification only
   (D) one-time password
   Answer

   (B). Section 3(2).
4. The adjudicating officer under section 46 decides claims for injury or damage not exceeding:
   (A) Rs. 1 crore
   (B) Rs. 5 crore
   (C) Rs. 10 crore
   (D) Rs. 50 lakh
   Answer

   (B). Section 46(1A); above Rs. 5 crore, the competent court.
5. After the Finance Act, 2017, appeals from the Controller or an adjudicating officer lie to:
   (A) the Cyber Appellate Tribunal
   (B) the High Court
   (C) TDSAT
   (D) NCLAT
   Answer

   (C). Section 48 makes TDSAT the Appellate Tribunal; appeal under section 57.
6. An appeal from the Appellate Tribunal to the High Court under section 62 must be filed within:
   (A) 30 days
   (B) 45 days
   (C) 60 days
   (D) 90 days
   Answer

   (C). Sixty days from communication of the order.
7. Fraudulent use of another person’s password is punishable under:
   (A) section 66B
   (B) section 66C
   (C) section 66D
   (D) section 66E
   Answer

   (B). Identity theft.
8. Cyber terrorism under section 66F is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to:
   (A) seven years
   (B) ten years
   (C) fourteen years
   (D) life
   Answer

   (D). Imprisonment for life.
9. Offences under the IT Act are investigated by a police officer not below the rank of:
   (A) Sub-Inspector
   (B) Inspector
   (C) Deputy Superintendent
   (D) Superintendent
   Answer

   (B). Section 78.
10. Unauthorised access to a protected system under section 70 is punishable with imprisonment up to:
    (A) three years
    (B) seven years
    (C) ten years
    (D) life
    Answer

    (C). Section 70(3), with fine.
11. CERT-In’s 2022 directions require listed cyber incidents to be reported within:
    (A) 6 hours
    (B) 24 hours
    (C) 72 hours
    (D) 7 days
    Answer

    (A). Directions of 28 April 2022 under section 70B(6).
12. A significant social media intermediary is one with registered users in India above:
    (A) 5 lakh
    (B) 10 lakh
    (C) 50 lakh
    (D) 1 crore
    Answer

    (C). The threshold notified under rule 2(1)(v) of the IT Rules, 2021.
13. An appeal to a Grievance Appellate Committee under rule 3A of the IT Rules, 2021 lies within:
    (A) 15 days
    (B) 30 days
    (C) 45 days
    (D) 60 days
    Answer

    (B). Thirty days from the Grievance Officer’s communication.
14. In Anuradha Bhasin (2020), the Supreme Court held that:
    (A) internet access is an absolute right
    (B) internet suspension may be indefinite
    (C) restrictions on internet use must be proportionate and orders must be published
    (D) section 69A is unconstitutional
    Answer

    (C). Indefinite suspension is impermissible; orders must be made available for challenge.
15. Monitoring a woman’s use of e-mail is an offence under:
    (A) section 75 BNS
    (B) section 77 BNS
    (C) section 78 BNS
    (D) section 79 BNS
    Answer

    (C). Stalking.
16. The BNS section on organised crime that names “cyber-crimes” is:
    (A) section 111
    (B) section 112
    (C) section 113
    (D) section 308
    Answer

    (A). Section 111(1).
17. “All trials, inquiries and proceedings may be held in electronic mode” is provided in:
    (A) section 173 BNSS
    (B) section 336 BNSS
    (C) section 530 BNSS
    (D) section 63 BSA
    Answer

    (C). Section 530 BNSS.
18. The certificate for electronic evidence under the BSA is required by:
    (A) section 61
    (B) section 62
    (C) section 63(4)
    (D) section 65B(4)
    Answer

    (C). Section 65B(4) was the Evidence Act provision; the BSA equivalent is section 63(4), with the form in the Schedule.
19. The Schedule certificate under the BSA must state:
    (A) the hash value of the electronic record
    (B) the IP address of the court
    (C) the FIR number
    (D) the stamp duty paid
    Answer

    (A). Both Part A and Part B record the hash value and the algorithm used, with a hash report enclosed.
20. The section 65B certificate was held to be a condition precedent, and Shafhi Mohammad overruled, in:
    (A) Navjot Sandhu (2005)
    (B) Anvar P.V. (2014)
    (C) Arjun Panditrao Khotkar (2020)
    (D) Puttaswamy (2017)
    Answer

    (C). Three-judge bench, 14 July 2020.
21. Under section 90 BSA, the Court may presume that an e-mail corresponds with the message sent, but may not presume:
    (A) the date of sending
    (B) the person by whom it was sent
    (C) the contents
    (D) the server used
    Answer

    (B). No presumption as to the sender.
22. Which section of the IT Act provides compensation for failure to protect sensitive personal data?
    (A) section 43
    (B) section 43A
    (C) section 72
    (D) section 72A
    Answer

    (B). Body corporate negligent in reasonable security practices.
23. Under the DPDP Act, consent must be all of the following except:
    (A) free
    (B) specific
    (C) conditional
    (D) unambiguous
    Answer

    (C). Section 6(1) requires consent to be unconditional.
24. Tracking, behavioural monitoring and targeted advertising directed at children are barred by:
    (A) section 6 DPDP Act
    (B) section 8 DPDP Act
    (C) section 9 DPDP Act
    (D) section 10 DPDP Act
    Answer

    (C). Section 9(3).
25. The main obligations and rights under the DPDP Act come into force, under the notification of 13 November 2025:
    (A) on 13 November 2025
    (B) one year after notification
    (C) eighteen months after notification
    (D) on a date yet to be notified
    Answer

    (C). Sections 3 to 17 and the penalty provisions commence eighteen months later, on 13 May 2027.