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Capital budgeting: NPV, profitability index and IRR

Financial Management · Unit IV · Topic 14 of 16 · 4 min read

The discounted cash flow methods with every recent paper problem solved: C and S (NPV Rs. 1,05,630), ABC Ltd (NPV −Rs. 24,272, PI 0.76), machines A and B (NPV Rs. 10,57,700 against Rs. 3,98,650), the August 2024 project (NPV −Rs. 47,820, PI 0.52) and IRR by interpolation (11.27%), with NPV against IRR compared.

On this page
  1. 1. Net present value
  2. 2. Profitability index
  3. 3. Mutually exclusive machines (February 2025)
  4. 4. August 2024: NPV, payback and PI
  5. 5. Internal rate of return
  6. 6. NPV against IRR
  7. How this is examined
Cases checked to exist. Read the judgment before quoting a holding.

Every case cited here has been checked to exist — the citation resolves and names the right parties. The propositions attributed to each case have not been verified line by line against the judgment. Case names link through to the full judgment: read it before quoting a holding in an examination answer, and never carry a proposition from notes into court on trust.

The examinable core. NPV = PV of inflows − outlay; PI = PV of inflows ÷ outlay; IRR = the rate at which NPV is zero. Accept if NPV > 0, PI > 1, IRR > cost of capital. Use the printed PV factors. Build CFAT first (previous note).

1. Net present value

NPV = Σ CFATt ÷ (1 + k)t − outlay, where k is the cost of capital. It recognises the time value of money, uses all cash flows, and measures the increase in shareholders’ wealth directly, which is why it is the preferred method. Its limits: k must be known, and it favours large projects in absolute terms.

C and S company (January 2026). CFAT from the previous note; cost of capital 15%.

YearCFATPV at 15%PV Rs.
11,00,0000.87087,000
21,00,0000.75675,600
388,0000.65857,904
488,0000.57250,336
570,0000.49734,790
Total PV3,05,630
Less outlay2,00,000
NPV1,05,630

NPV positive: accept. (PI = 3,05,630 ÷ 2,00,000 = 1.53.)

2. Profitability index

PI (benefit–cost ratio) = PV of inflows ÷ PV of outlay. Accept if above 1. It ranks projects of different sizes and is the method for capital rationing.

ABC Ltd (February 2025). CFAT 17,000; 17,600; 19,100; 23,960; 24,200 (previous note); factors at 10%.

YearCFATPV at 10%PV Rs.
117,0000.90915,453
217,6000.82614,538
319,1000.75114,344
423,9600.68316,365
524,2000.62115,028
Total PV75,728

NPV = 75,728 − 1,00,000 = −Rs. 24,272; PI = 75,728 ÷ 1,00,000 = 0.76. Reject: the project does not recover its cost in present-value terms.

3. Mutually exclusive machines (February 2025)

Each costs Rs. 2,50,000; straight-line depreciation over 5 years = Rs. 50,000; CFAT given; discount rate 10%.

YearPV 10%A CFATA PVB CFATB PV
10.9093,00,0002,72,70050,00045,450
20.8264,00,0003,30,4001,50,0001,23,900
30.7515,00,0003,75,5002,00,0001,50,200
40.6833,00,0002,04,9003,00,0002,04,900
50.6212,00,0001,24,2002,00,0001,24,200
Total17,00,00013,07,7009,00,0006,48,650
MethodMachine AMachine B
NPV (PV − 2,50,000)10,57,7003,98,650
PI (PV ÷ 2,50,000)5.232.59
Average CFAT3,40,0001,80,000
Average profit (− dep. 50,000)2,90,0001,30,000
ARR on average investment 1,25,000232%104%

Machine A is more profitable on all three methods. (ARR on original investment: 116% and 52%.)

4. August 2024: NPV, payback and PI

Outlay Rs. 1,00,000; life 5 years; scrap Rs. 10,000; profit after tax before depreciation (= CFAT) 6,000; 14,000; 24,000; 16,000; nil; factors at 10%.

PV of CFAT = 5,454 + 11,564 + 18,024 + 10,928 + 0 = 45,970; PV of scrap 10,000 × 0.621 = 6,210; total 52,180. NPV = 52,180 − 1,00,000 = −Rs. 47,820; PI = 0.52. Cumulative CFAT is only Rs. 60,000 by year 4 and Rs. 70,000 with scrap in year 5: the outlay is never recovered, so there is no payback within the life. Reject on every method. (Write this conclusion plainly; examiners set such figures to test whether you can say “no payback”.)

5. Internal rate of return

IRR is the discount rate r at which PV of inflows equals the outlay (NPV = 0). Accept if r exceeds the cost of capital. Find it by trial: choose a rate, compute NPV; if positive, try a higher rate; interpolate between a positive and a negative NPV:

IRR = L + [NPVL ÷ (NPVL − NPVH)] × (H − L)

August 2024. Cost Rs. 22,000; inflows 12,000; 4,000; 2,000; 10,000.

YearInflowPV 10%PV Rs.PV 12%PV Rs.
112,0000.90910,9080.89310,716
24,0000.8263,3040.7973,188
32,0000.7511,5020.7121,424
410,0000.6836,8300.6366,360
Total PV22,54421,688
NPV (− 22,000)+544−312

IRR = 10 + [544 ÷ (544 + 312)] × 2 = 10 + 1.27 = 11.27%. (Exact computation gives 11.25%.)

6. NPV against IRR

How this is examined

Every paper has one of these problems for 10 marks in Unit IV. Write the formula, the CFAT table, the PV table, and a one-line decision for each method asked. In an IRR question, show both trial rates and the interpolation. If the question gives “income after depreciation before tax” (January 2026), tax it and add depreciation back; if it gives “profit after tax before depreciation” (August 2024), that figure is already the CFAT.

Now try the real questions: Financial Management past question papers.